@scottalanmiller said in Defining High Availability:

@Jimmy9008 said in Defining High Availability:

@scottalanmiller said in Defining High Availability:

@Dashrender said in Defining High Availability:

@scottalanmiller said in Defining High Availability:

@Dashrender said in Defining High Availability:

.9999939117 or in percent 99.99939117 % uptime

AKA: Five Nines

Or more accurately, 5 Nines+

That extra "39" after your five nines is a significant improvement over five nines, but not close to six nines. I'd call it "really good" availability

And significant means the difference between 315.36 seconds of downtime vs your 192 seconds (5 mins 15.36 second vs 3 min 12 seconds).

Yeah. Its nearly half!

Hopefully it will remain as 48 seconds for the rest of the year. So, if that were to happen we would be: %99.99984779, correct?

Sounds about right. Six nines is just 2.6 seconds!

Yeah, not long. That is unplanned downtime only though. We have plenty of planned downtime for running updates and other projects. But still, good.

I'm off to a new job on 1st of April so won't know the end of year figure. I'd hope it is around 48 seconds though.

@scottalanmiller said in Defining High Availability:

@Dashrender said in Defining High Availability:

@scottalanmiller said in Defining High Availability:

@Dashrender said in Defining High Availability:

.9999939117 or in percent 99.99939117 % uptime

AKA: Five Nines

Or more accurately, 5 Nines+

That extra "39" after your five nines is a significant improvement over five nines, but not close to six nines. I'd call it "really good" availability

And significant means the difference between 315.36 seconds of downtime vs your 192 seconds (5 mins 15.36 second vs 3 min 12 seconds).

Yeah. Its nearly half!

Hopefully it will remain as 48 seconds for the rest of the year. So, if that were to happen we would be: %99.99984779, correct?

I find this all very interesting. Anywhere to read more in depth on industry standards surrounding this?

My team base availability on HTTP/S error codes. If a code comes back, say 404, then we consider that unavailable. If the page loads, but the site does not function because our development team messed a release up, as long as it is not an error such as 404, we consider we are available.

Our development team probably calculate their up-time differently, but its all very interesting to me.

We are at 48 seconds of unavailability so far in 2019. Providing that stays the same for the rest of the year per quarter (48 seconds per quarter), how many 9's does that project for us? (Not really sure how to calculate that)...

So, how many 9's up-time would 192 seconds of downtime for a whole year be?

@Dashrender said in Networking/ISP:

@Jimmy9008 said in Networking/ISP:

@scottalanmiller said in Networking/ISP:

@Jimmy9008 said in Networking/ISP:

Can one fibere cable route our Internet traffic to them, whilst also passing 'private' traffic over this line too?

That's the norm. And not just for ISPs, VPNs do this, too.

The gateway out is public IP to the Internet. VPN tunnels between two public IPs, etc... all Internet.

What they seem to be saying is that the 89.x.x.x public 'Internet Stuff' can go through that cable, and my 192.168.3.x 'LAN' stuff can also go through that cable, and at the same time I can have Internet served to my Firewall, and 'LAN' to my device... can it work that way?

So their switch interface 2 is routing 89.x.x.x traffic, and interface 3 is is extending my LAN on 192.x.x.x (public IPs going on and private)... all through the fibre cable to their DC?

More or less - yes.
They can trunk the single line to act like many lines - think VLANs

Ok. I think that makes more sense to me.

So, the ISP switch eth1 is vLAN1, which passes 89.x.x.x to my firewall for my organisations Internet access. eth1 routes out over their eth0 fibre link. Then, vLAN2 is eth2 on their switch, which extends my 192.x.x.x private range to them, again over the eth0.

Ok, I think in that warped way I get it.

So, I can say to them:

"I'm going to plug my device 10.10.10.2 in to your switch at my office on eth3.
Connect my box at your DC. Its set to be 10.10.10.3. Now, make them talk over my fibre line..."

@scottalanmiller said in Networking/ISP:

@Jimmy9008 said in Networking/ISP:

Can one fibere cable route our Internet traffic to them, whilst also passing 'private' traffic over this line too?

That's the norm. And not just for ISPs, VPNs do this, too.

The gateway out is public IP to the Internet. VPN tunnels between two public IPs, etc... all Internet.

What they seem to be saying is that the 89.x.x.x public 'Internet Stuff' can go through that cable, and my 192.168.3.x 'LAN' stuff can also go through that cable, and at the same time I can have Internet served to my Firewall, and 'LAN' to my device... can it work that way?

So their switch interface 2 is routing 89.x.x.x traffic, and interface 3 is is extending my LAN on 192.x.x.x (public IPs going on and private)... all through the fibre cable to their DC?

Hi folks,

As I say, networking isnt my focus but trying to get my head around it. Hopefully this diagram will help... (sorry for how crap it looks!)...

So, top = ISPs 'end'. Red dash lines next to the black lines, thats one fibre cable.

So, is it possible to connect eth3 on the ISP switch on my site in to my switch (the lower red line), and for the ISP to connect that to their end, (I guess a switch), whilst also connecting my internet line through my firewall traffic?

Essentially the top device x.x.3.5 can communicate with x.x.x.3.2 like its on my LAN? At the same time as Internet traffic going through the fibre cable?

Really confused and just imagine im going drastically wrong here...


Its an off site backup NAS. I'll draw a diagram after cooking dinner. Hopefully that will help explain it to me...

We have a few ISPs, we just happen to have a device that we want to host with them off site.

Can one fibere cable route our Internet traffic to them, whilst also passing 'private' traffic over this line too?

I guess the switch/cable they have just passes 'data', and their routers at their end will be configured based on the IPs I give to pass 89.x out, and 10.x to my site their end?

Hi folks,

Quite confused here, could you help me understand how this works...

My ISP provide a fibre line to my office for our Internet. This comes in to my office in to their device sitting in my cabinet (the POP?) by fibre cable. A cable (cat6) comes from their device in to a switch (which is also their device). I then connect my firewall to interface 2 on their switch.

I connect my WAN on my firewall (89.x.x.x) in to interface 2 on their switch. Traffic then goes from my LAN on the firewall out to the Internet over the existing setup.

We are looking to put a device in their datacenter and they have said we can use datacenter connect. Which is 'like a private network' from my office to the devices I will put on their site over our existing line. I just don't understand how it works...

They have said I can use private addresses for this and want the IPs from me, but I still only have the one fibre connection coming in to their kit and just cant grasp what is going on...

I am guessing they are saying I can connect a device to Interface 3 on their switch (not through my firewall) with an IP like 10.10.10.3, and their datacenter could have another device using 10.10.10.4 at the DC end, and over the fibre they can talk 'private'/point to point over my fibre line...

In this case, will the one fibre link pass traffic from me to them on this private setup, whist also passing traffic for my public internet access? (Over the one cable)?

Probably a totally idiot question, but any help to help me understand this?

Ta,
J